Muaban.net tổng hợp hơn 10 bộ đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 có đáp án, mang đến cho học sinh tài liệu ôn tập phong phú và hữu ích. Bộ đề thi này hỗ trợ học sinh trong việc củng cố kiến thức, nâng cao kỹ năng tiếng Anh và chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kì thi cuối kì. Hãy tận dụng những đề thi này để nâng cao trình độ và đạt kết quả tốt trong kì thi sắp tới.
I. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 Global Success (Kết nối tri thức)
Exercise 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
|
1. A. shy |
B. pretty |
C. curly |
D. pony |
|
2. A. ears |
B. eyes |
C. hands |
D. cheeks |
|
3. A. funny |
B. curious |
C. chubby |
D. lunch |
Exercise 2: Choose the correct answer
1. The boy is sitting ________ the computer. He is playing computer games.
A. under B. next to C. behind D. in front of
2. Students live and study in a ________ school. They only go home at weekends.
A. secondary B. international C. boarding D. private
3. ________ are your friends coming for the party tonight? ~ About 7 o’clock.
A. What B. Where C. What time D. How often
4. My best friend is very ________. He plays football and basketball very well.
A. friendly B. sporty C. lovely D. funny
5. We shouldn’t play music __________after midnight.
A. careful B. right C. loud D. easy
6. Please turn _________ the lights. The room is so dark.
A. with B. at C. in D. on
7. Next summer I am working as a _______ teacher in a village near Hoa Binh City.
A. good B. nice C. favourite D. volunteer
8. Nam __________football now. He‟s tired.
A. doesn’t play B. plays C. is playing D. isn’t playing
9. I am having a math lesson but I forgot my ___________. I have some difficulties.
A. calculator B. bike C. pencil case D. pencil sharpener
10. School ____________at 4.30 p.m every day.
A. finish B. finishes C. go D. have
Exercise 3: Give the correct form of verbs
1. We (speak) _________ French at the moment.
2. I (watch) ____________ TV about 3 hours a day.
3. We (play) ____________tennis now.
4. My family usually (go) ___________ to the movies on Sunday.
5. _________you (like) ________chocolate ice cream?
Exercise 4: Read the text and answer the following questions
Hello! My name is Peter and this is my house.
My house is quite big. It has got two floors – a ground floor and a first floor. It has also got an attic and a basement. On the ground floor, there is a kitchen, a living room, a big dining room and a bathroom. On the first floor, there are three bedrooms, one bathroom and a big corridor. My bedroom is between my parents’ bedroom and the bathroom. My sister’s bedroom is in front of mine.
I love my bedroom, but I also like the attic. In the attic I keep some of my books and my old toys. I like to spend my time there because it is very spacious and there is a big sofa there where I sometimes take a nap.
At the back of the house, there is a garage where my parents park the family car, and a lovely garden with many green spaces, flowers, two swings and a small swimming pool.
I love my house! It’s very comfortable and cozy.
1. Is Peter’s house big or small?
______________________________________________
2. How many rooms are there on the ground floor? What are they?
______________________________________________
3. Where is Peter’s bedroom?
______________________________________________
4. Why does Peter like to be in the attic?
______________________________________________
5. Where is the garage?
______________________________________________
6. Is the swimming pool in the garden?
______________________________________________
7. Does Peter like his room?
______________________________________________
Exercise 5: Make questions for the underlined words.
1. His telephone number is 8 259 640.
______________________________________________
2. It’s about two kilometers from my house to the movie theater.
______________________________________________
3. My father is an engineer.
______________________________________________
Exercise 6: Reorder the words and write the meaning sentences
1. student/ Minh/ new/ a/ is
______________________________________________
2. green fields/ There/ are
______________________________________________
3. ten/ are/ desks/ small/ There
______________________________________________
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Global Success : Tại đây |
Tham khảo tin tuyển dụng việc làm part-time dành cho HSSV:
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Global Success (Kết nối tri thức)
Exercise 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
1. A
2. D
3. B
Exercise 2: Choose the correct answer
|
1. D |
2. C |
3. C |
4. B |
5. C |
|
6. D |
7. D |
8. D |
9. A |
10. B |
Exercise 3: Give the correct form of verbs
1. We (speak) ____are speaking_____ French at the moment.
2. I (watch) _____watch_______ TV about 3 hours a day.
3. We (play) _____are playing_______tennis now.
4. My family usually (go) ______goes_____ to the movies on Sunday.
5. ____Do_____you (like) ____like____chocolate ice cream?
Exercise 4: Read the text and answer the following questions
1. His house is big.
2.There are four rooms. They are the kitchen, the living room, the dining room and the bathroom.
3.Peter’s bedroom is on the first floor, between his parents’ bedroom and the bathroom.
4.Because the attic is very spacious and there is a big sofa in it.
5.The garage is at the back of the house.
6.Yes, it is.
Exercise 5: Make questions for the underlined words.
1. What is his telephone number?
2. How far is it from your house to the movie theater
3. What does your father do?
Exercise 6: Reorder the words and write the meaning sentences
1. Minh is a new student
2. There are green fields
3. There are ten small desks
>>>Xem thêm: Tuyển tập 10+ đề thi cuối kì 2 lớp 6 môn văn có đáp án mới nhất 2023
II. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 Friends Plus (Chân trời sáng tạo)
I. Listen and decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. He goes swimming at 6 o’clock on Monday. _______
2. He plays basketball between 7 a.m and 9 a.m on Tuesday. _______
3. On Tuesday morning, he doesn’t have a class. _______
4. He joins a chess club at his school every Saturday morning. _______
5. His football team often loses the matches. _______
II. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.
6.
A. mine
B. history
C. exercise
D. library
7.
A. cold
B. volleyball
C. telephone
D. open
8.
A. subject
B. club
C. put
D. lunch
III. Find which word doesn’t belong each group.
9.
A. sofa
B. chair
C. toilet
D. table
10.
A. cooker
B. desk
C. dishwasher
D. fridge
11.
A. bed
B. lamp
C. fan
D. villa
IV. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D).
12. The Eiffel Tower is the most __________ landmark in the world.
A. visit
B. visiting
C. visited
D. to visit
13. When we were in Stockholm, we had coffee and cakes __________ a coffee shop __________ the old town.
A. on – on
B. at – at
C. in – in
D. on – at
14. Do you know the most __________ drink in Vietnam?
A. popular
B. cheap
C. hot
D. best
15. People in Tokyo are very polite __________ friendly.
A. or
B. but
C. so
D. and
16. Have you ever __________ to Manchester?
A. be
B. been
C. being
D. went
17. I think it is a very nice town __________ the weather is good and the people are friendly.
A. because
B. if
C. so
D. although
18. This is the first time that I __________ a 3D film.
A. watch
B. watched
C. watches
D. have watched
19. I __________ Hue four times in all.
A. visit
B. visited
C. visiting
D. have visited
20. The red double-decker bus is London’s famous __________.
A. sign
B. signal
C. symbol
D. logo
V. Put the verbs in brackets into a suitable tense.
21. My aunt and uncle (visit) __________ Paris last Wednesday.
22. Trung usually (go) __________ to school on foot.
23. Ms.Dung (not take) __________ the bus to work yesterday.
24. I (meet) __________ Hien and Phuong three day ago.
25. They (not open) __________ the shop on Saturdays and Sundays.
VI. Read the passage and answer the questions.
Singapore or Singapura is a city as well as a country in South East Asia, is a little red dot located just off the southern tip of Peninsular. Singapura is a Malay word. Singa means Lion and pura means City. That is why Singapore is also known as Lion City.
This Lion City was founded as a British Colony in 1918 and it had been developed into one of the world’s busiest port today. You may find lots of modern skyscrapers everywhere mixed together with a taste of traditional Chinese, Indian and Malay influences buildings. Combining with great taste food, fantastic shopping, exciting nightlife, first-class airport and connections to the rest of the world, this Lion City is a great stopover.
According to legend, Singapore was part of the Srivijayan Empire in the 13th century.
Began in 1819, Singapore was founded by Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles and he declare Singapore a free port, with no duties charged on trade. This policy had drawn traders from far and wide and turns her into one of the Asia’s busiest port.
When World War II broke out, Singapore was seen as a formidable British base; with several naval defenses guarding against assault by sea. However, to their surprise, the Japanese chose to cross Malaya by bicycle instead. Despite with all the effort to hold the Japanese, Singapore had surrendered on 1942 with less than a week of fighting. The Japan occupation lasted for three years and eight months with the return of the British in 1945. After the war, Singapore became a British Colony.
Singapore had joined Malaysia for a short time in 1963 when the British left, but Singapore left Malaysia and became independent on 9 August 1965. Since then, Singapore’s economy boom for the subsequent forty years and become one of the four East Asian Tigers.
26. When was Singapore founded?
A. 1918
B. 1942
C. 1819
D. 1965
27. How many cultures were the Lion City’s building influenced by?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
28. Who ruled Singapore in the 13th century?
A. Srivijayan Empire
B. Chinese
C. Thomas Stamford Raffles
D. Indian
29. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Singapore used to be a formidable British base.
B. In 1819, Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles declared Singapore a free port.
C. When World War II broke out, Singapore was independent.
D. Singapore became independent on 9 August 1965.
30. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To explain why Singapore is founded.
B. To explain why Singapore’s population is increasing.
C. To present overall information of Singapore.
D. To present the history of Singapore.
VII. Read and fill in the blanks.
Tom: Hi there.
Ben: Hello Tom. Did you enjoy your holiday?
Tom: Yes, It was great. I (31. visit) __________many interesting places, but I (32. not have) __________ much time to buy souvenirs. I went to the beach and sunbathed at weekend. How about your trip to England?
Ben: Oh, It (33. not be) __________ so good.
Tom: Really? What did you do there?
Ben: I (34. get) __________ sick, so I stayed in the hotel and (35. watch) __________ a football match.
31.
A. visit
B. was visit
C. visited
D. has visited
32.
A. don’t have
B. didn’t have
C. not had
D. didn’t has
33.
A. wasn’t
B. weren’t
C. am not
D. not was
34.
A. got
B. have got
C. was get
D. to get
35.
A. watched
B. watching
C. to watch
D. has watched
VIII. Rewrite the sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
36. She sang a song.
=> A song _______________________________________ .
37. Somebody hit me.
=> I____________________________________________ .
38. We stopped the bus.
=> The bus ______________________________________ .
39. Max plays the violin. He started three years ago.
=> Max _________________________________________ .
40. I saw Ann yesterday but I haven’t seen her today.
=> I ____________________________________________ .
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Friends Plus : Tại đây |
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 Friends Plus (Chân trời sáng tạo)
III. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – I Learn Smart World
I. Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False.
1. Tokyo is the largest megacity in the world with 13 million people.
2. The most beautiful time in Tokyo is in the spring.
3. Alice should take the subway in Tokyo because it’s safer.
4. Tokyo National Museum is the oldest museum in the world.
II. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
5.
A. weather
B. brother
C. cathedral
D. although
6.
A. parks
B. computers
C. astronauts
D. maps
III. Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
7.
A. machine
B. device
C. printer
D. computer
8.
A. technology
B. internet
C. future
D. special
IV. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence.
9. In the future, automatic food machines __________ all our food.
A. might make
B. will be
C. have
D. prepares
10. Your parents __________ angry if you __________ playing computer games.
A. are/ won’t stop
B. will be/ don’t stop
C. will be/ won’t stop
D. will be/ stop
11. You __________ eat so many sweets. They aren’t good for you.
A. have to
B. need
C. can
D. shouldn’t
12. __________ is a piece of land with water all around it.
A. An island
B. A bay
C. A waterfall
D. A mountain
13. Student 1: “How might homes change in the future?” – Student 2: “__________”
A. I have to get a robot helper.
B. We might live in smart homes.
C. We can’t use an automatic food machine.
D. We should have smart devices.
14. Student 1: “Should we bring a tent?” – Student 2: “__________”
A. You’re welcome.
B. Yes, me too.
C. Sorry, I don’t understand.
D. Yes, good idea.
15. What __________ life be like if we live on the moon in the 23rd century?
A. will
B. was
C. do
D. is
16. Everything __________ in space because there’s no gravity.
A. might float
B. floats
C. float
D. floating
17. Don’t forget to bring a __________. It will keep you warm when you sleep at the campsite.
A. flashlight
B. towel
C. sleeping bag
D. battery
18. __________ is special clothing to wear when astronauts work outside in space.
A. Space station
B. Gravity
C. Spaceship
D. Spacesuit
V. Read the following passage and complete the tasks. Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False.
Hi, Susan.
We’re having a wonderful time in Australia. We arrived in Melbourne last week and stayed there for two days. On the first day, we went to Royal Botanic Gardens. Visiting Botanic Gardens is the best free thing to do in Melbourne. There are more than 8500 species of plants here. In the summer, there are also live performances in the Gardens. On the next day, we visited Royal Exhibition building. It’s one of the oldest places in Melbourne. We arrived in Sydney yesterday morning. The city was so nice in the sunshine. We sat in a café by the river and had lunch. Sydney is more exciting than Melbourne, but it is noisier and more expensive. Melbourne is smaller, but it has a lot of lovely old buildings and great restaurants. That’s why I prefer Melbourne.
Wish you were here.
Jennifer.
19. Jennifer stayed in Melbourne for one day.
20. It costs a lot of money to visit Royal Botanic Gardens.
21. People can enjoy live performances in Botanic Gardens in the summer.
22. Jennifer likes Melbourne more than Sydney.
VI. Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank.
HOW WILL WE LIVE IN THE FUTURE?
Scientists say that in the future, the ways we live, work and play will be very (23) _________ to how they are now. Homes will become (24) _________ because more and more people will live in crowded cities. It will be possible to live under water. People will use more smart technology in their homes. We will do all our shopping on the internet and drones (25) _________ the groceries to our houses. There will be robots (26) _________ all the household chores, so we won’t have to do the washing up or cooking. We might download ideas for furniture and then print it on our 3D printers. We might also take holidays (27) _________ space.
23.
A. difference
B. differently
C. different
D. differences
24.
A. more small and tall
B. smaller and taller
C. the smallest and tallest
D. the most small and tall
25.
A. will deliver
B. might have
C. make
D. will change
26.
A. do
B. to do
C. so it does
D. it do
27.
A. on
B. for
C. with
D. in
VII. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the adjectives in brackets.
28. Mount Everest is __________ mountain in the world. (high)
29. It is __________ in big cities than in small towns. (noisy)
30. I think playing sports is __________ than watching TV. (good)
31. Who’s __________ student in your class? (intelligent)
VIII. Rearrange the words to make correct sentences.
32. printer./ things/ can/ cool/ You/ a/ with/ lots/ print/ of/ 3D
____________________________
33. performances./ musical/ to/ go/ to/ people/ watch/ Many/ Sydney Opera House
____________________________
34. everybody/ I think/ easier/ much/ for/ life/ in/ be/ will/ the future.
____________________________
IX. Make a suitable question for the underlined part in each sentence.
35. You should visit Ha Giang province in February.
=> _________________________
36. I think people will live under the sea in the future.
=> _________________________
37. We can go hiking and rafting there.
=> _________________________
X. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning.
38. I think Chinese is more difficult than English.
=> I think English _______________.
39. The other people in the team are much younger than Alice.
=> Alice is _____________________.
40. It’s necessary for you to bring bottled water.
=> You ________________________.
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – I Learn Smart World : Tại đây |
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – I Learn Smart World
>>>Xem thêm: Tổng hợp 20+ đề thi toán lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 có đáp án mới nhất 2023
III. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Right On
I. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
1.
A. houses
B. lamps
C. cakes
D. cups
2.
A. baskets
B. mountains
C. highlands
D. stadiums
3.
A. fixed
B. locked
C. packed
D. decided
II. Find the word which has different stress pattern from the others.
4.
A. maintain
B. pretty
C. awful
D. noisy
5.
A. describe
B. hurry
C. artist
D. princess
III. Choose the correct answers.
6. You look cute in that huge jacket and scarf! When did you take this photo? – Thank you. I took it last _____.
A. spring
B. summer
C. autumn
D. winter
7. Why don’t we go to the ______ this weekend? There are live performances.
A. stadium
B. street
C. concert hall
D. exhibition centre
8. You should visit Hanoi in autumn because the weather is pleasant. It’s normally _____ and ______.
A. hot – stormy
B. sunny – cold
C. cold – snowy
D. sunny – cool
9. Neil Amstrong was a famous _______.
A. astronaut
B. writer
C. pilot
D. mathematician
10. I think he’ll love “Spiderman” because he likes _______ movies.
A. animated
B. science fiction
C. fantasy
D. soap opera
11. I ate too much tonight. I ate two _____ of pizza, a _____ of cake, some chips and a _____ of coke.
A. slices – packet – glass
B. bar – packet – cup
C. slices – piece – glass
D. piece – packet – cup
12. A: Excuse me, where is the bus station?
B: Go ____ this street, turn left on the traffic light. It’s on your right.
A. into
B. to
C. along
D. above
13. You should bring your _____ because it’s rainy and windy.
A. jacket
B. raincoat
C. skirt
D. T-shirt
14. Look at these dark clouds. It ______ soon!
A. rained
B. will rain
C. rain
D. is going to rain
15. If you _____ your suitcase tonight, you _____ more time tomorrow.
A. pack – have
B. pack – will have
C. will pack – have
D. packed – had
16. Vincent van Gogh _____ his famous picture “Starry Night” in June 1889.
A. paint
B. painted
C. is painting
D. was paint
17. Would you like to go to the cinema tonight? – I’m afraid I can’t. We ______ an online meeting at 8 PM tonight.
A. have
B. are having
C. will have
D. might have
18. The trailer was _____ but when I saw the movie last night, I feel _____.
A. amazed – disappointed
B. amazing – disappointing
C. amazed – disappointed
D. amazing – disappointed
19. We don’t like horror movies ____ we watch “How to Train your Dragon” instead.
A. so
B. as
C. because
D. although
20. Can I borrow your bag, I can’t see _____ anywhere?
A. my
B. I
C. mine
D. myself
21. I think I will _____ street food in Dalat. It looks delicious!
A. take
B. sample
C. pick
D. see
22. Did you take lots of photos when you _____ in Bali?
A. are
B. is
C. was
D. were
23. My mom ______ disappointed if we _____ the exam.
A. will be – don’t pass
B. be – pass
C. will be – pass
D. is – will pass
24. We should _____ the plastic bags because they are not ______.
A. reuse – recycle
B. recycle – reuse
C. reduce – reuse
D. reuse – recyclable
25. If you feel ill, you _____ take a day off.
A. might
B. might not
C. should
D. should not
IV. Read the text and decide if the statements are True or False.
YOUNG AT ART MUSEUM
The aim of the Young At Art Children’s Museum, South Florida is to introduce children to art in an exciting way.
There are lots of things to do. For example, children can use interactive exhibits to create their own work of art. There is even a special gallery for very young children where they can play and explore materials with their hands.The museum offers lots of activities, too, from birthday parties to field trips. Children can sign up for summer camps, and there are scholarships for talented young artists.
Anyone can become a member of YAA. Membership includes unlimited visits for a year and other discounts. If you are 15 or older, you can also volunteer at the museum.
26. Children can only see and aren’t allowed to touch things in the museum.
27. Children can hold their birthday parties there.
28. The museum offers summer camps for kids.
29. You need to be older than 15 to become a member of YAA.
30. You can visit the museum for free for one year if you are a member of YAA.
V. Read the text and choose the correct answers.
Hi Julian,
Hope you’re well! On Sunday morning, my brother and I (31) ______ Jurassic Falls Adventure Golf, an outdoor mini-golf course in East London. It’s got a dinosaur theme! There are life-sized model dinosaurs everywhere and a dinosaur-theme restaurant, Gogyuzu. I heard that there are lots of (32)_____ dishes. I can’t wait to try them!
Then in the (33)_____, we are going to the playground near (34)______ house. We are going to meet our cousins and neighbours there. We are going to eat out in my favourite restaurant.
Why don’t you join (35) _____? We’ll pick you up at 9:30 AM.
Let me know if you can make it.
Alex.
31.
A. are
B. are going to
C. go
D. went
32.
A. terrible
B. delicious
C. huge
D. awful
33.
A. noon
B. night
C. afternoon
D. evening
34.
A. we
B. our
C. ours
D. ourselves
35.
A. us
B. we
C. ours
D. ourselves
WRITING
Write a postcard to your friend about your weekend plans and inviting him/her to join you.
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Right On: Tại đây |
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Right on
IV. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – English Discovery
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
1.
A. indoor
B. stadium
C. champion
D. exciting
2.
A. washed
B. watched
C. cleaned
D. danced
3.
A. theory
B. century
C. cycling
D. gymnastic
II. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest.
4.
A. report
B. champion
C. interest
D. hockey
5.
A. machine
B. charger
C. cooker
D. idol
III. Choose the best answer for each question.
6. She ____ an excellent student in her class 3 years ago.
A. was
B. were
C. is
D. did
7. I _____ to the supermarket with my mom yesterday morning.
A. go
B. went
C. goes
D. going
8. I ___ jogging and ___ gymnastics every morning to keep fit.
A. do – do
B. go – do
C. go – go
D. go – do
9. My favourite _________ is Google. I use it a lot to search for information.
A. search engine
B. experiment
C. game
D. track
10. The computer can help people to do a lot of things. I think it is very ____.
A. useful
B. rude
C. exciting
D. boring
11. Did you do your homework last night? – _________.
A. Yes, I do
B. No, I did
C. No, I wasn’t
D. Yes, I did
12. Our team _____ a goal at the end of the match. We were very happy.
A. lost
B. scored
C. matched
D. won
13. Are you ______ sports? – Of course! I’m a big fan for football.
A. keen
B. into
C. like
D. fond
14. __________________? – It was Batman. I really liked him when I was a kid.
A. What character do you like?
B. Do you like Batman?
C. Who was your childhood idol?
D. Did you like Batman?
15. __________ a girl in your football team? – No, but the volleyball team had two.
A. Were there
B. Who was
C. Was there
D. Did
IV. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words.
16. My dad is a sport _________. He’s crazy for hockey and marathons. (FAN)
17. The Internet was one of the greatest ________ in the last century. (INVENT)
18. Anna joined in a volleyball world __________ when she was 15. (CHAMPION)
19. Leo has a ____________ of stamps from countries around the world. (COLLECT)
20. I’m not ____________ in sports. I’m more into nature and science. (INTEREST)
V. Fill in the blank with the correct Past Simple form of the verb in the box. There is one extra word.
| Have | Go | Meet | Visit | Wake | Wash | |
Last Wednesday morning, I (21) _______ up early and got ready for school. After I had my breakfast, I (22)________ to school at around 7:00 a.m. I (23) ________ my friends and my teachers here. We (24) _______ Maths and Literature on Wednesday. My classes ended in the afternoon. After school, I walked with my friends, (25) ________ my grandparents’ house then went home at around 5 pm.
VI. Read the text and the statements below. Who ( A – Andy, B – Billy) is each sentence about? You can use the letters more than once.
Andy (A)
We did lots of team sports at school, like football, volleyball and hockey. But I’m not very fast or strong. Members of my team often laughed at me, so I stopped playing sports because it upset me. But later, I learned that I can do exercise better without other people around. Now I go cycling, swimming and running regularly to keep fit. Everyone can no longer get mad at me when I play sports!
Billy (B)
I used to do sports a lot when I was at school. I loved the exercise, and I was also a member of a football team. We had great times together. Unluckily, I was in a terrible car accident and broke my leg. Now I can no longer do every sport. The only sport I can do is fishing, and that’s so boring! A friend of mine has suggested going sailing. It sounds fun. I think I’ll try that.
26. Who plans to try a new sport soon?
27. Who is unable to do the sports that she enjoyed in the past?
28. Who only enjoys doing exercise when she is alone?
29. Who had great times with friends in a team?
30. Who had unhappy experiences when playing team sports?
VII. Read the text below and answer the following questions.
Fitness trackers are the first well-known electronic wearable technology. They help you maintain good health by monitoring your heart and movement. Now, wearable technology helps people stay healthy in new ways. For example, there is a new product called ‘iTBra’. It looks like a patch. Women wear it inside their bras to check for breast cancer. Another product is ‘Heart Guide’. It can measure blood pressure. It can also track information about users’ lifestyle. Then it shares this information with the doctor so that he can give users’ advice for better health. Finally, ‘SmartSleep’ is a soft headband. It helps people to sleep better. It collects information about people’s sleep patterns, gives advice and makes sounds to help people fall asleep. However, not all wearables are about health. Some are used for protection or to find the place you want to go, and some are just for fun.
31. How can Fitness trackers help you stay healthy?
_____________________________________________
32. How can women wear “iTBra”?
_____________________________________________
33. How can people use information from “Heart Guide”?
_____________________________________________
34. How can “Smart Sleep” help people?
_____________________________________________
35. Can people use wearables for protection?
_____________________________________________
VIII. Make questions for the following answers.
36. _______________________________________________?
=> There were five football matches in the championship.
=> I did my homework, watched TV and then went to sleep last night.
38. ________________________________________________?
=> The competition was in 2014.
39. _________________________________________________?
=> No, I wasn’t the tallest one in my class. Tom was.
40. _________________________________________________?
=> The cellphone was the most important invention in the last century.
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – English Discovery: Tại đây |
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – English Discovery
V. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Explore English (Cánh diều)
I. Listen to two students talking about what they will do if they become the presidents of the 3Rs club. Choose the best answer.
1. What will be the first thing Mi do if she becomes the president of the club?
A. Talk to her friends happily.
B. Put a recycling bin in every classroom.
C. Reuse the bins.
2. What can students do in a book fair?
A. Exchange their books.
B. Buy new books.
C. Read others’ books.
3. What will Nam do if he becomes the president of the club?
A. Organise book fairs.
B. Organise uniform fairs.
C. Put a recycling bin in every classroom.
4. What does Nam think about going to school by bus?
A. It’s fun and easy.
B. It’s easy and helps the environment.
C. It’s fun and helps the environment.
Listen again and decide whether the statements are True or False?
5. Mi thinks that we can use the things from recycling bins again.
6. Nam will organise some book fairs.
7. Mi mentions a vehicle.
8. Students can buy uniforms in Nam’s fairs.
9. Both Mi and Nam think about ways to make the school greener.
10. Both Nam and Mi are from class 6A.
II. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’.
11.
A. think
B. bath
C. breath
D. father
12.
A. snow
B. postcard
C. grow
D. however
13.
A. prepare
B. chess
C. tennis
D. error
III. Circle the word whose stress pattern is pronounced differently from the others’.
14.
A. begin
B. famous
C. ready
D. active
15.
A. firework
B. travel
C. morning
D. idea
IV. Choose the best option to complete the sentences by circle the letter A, B, C or D.
16. The Big Ben Tower is a famous ________ in London.
A. city
B. island
C. building
D. landmark
17. If people _____ less chemical in agriculture, there _____ less soil pollution.
A. use – is
B. will use – be
C. use – will be
D. using – will
18. “Mommy, Jack is watching cartoons right now!” – “ _______ the TV and do your homework, Jack!”
A. You turn on
B. Turn on
C. You turn off
D. Turn off
19. She came home and felt exhausted _____ she couldn’t sleep well.
A. but
B. because
C. so
D. and
20. Remember to bring _____ when you go swimming.
A. boat
B. racket
C. goggles
D. bicycle
21. “____ do you want to travel to England?” – “Because I like the red double-decker and Big Ben Tower.”
A. How
B. What
C. When
D. Why
22. I think my future house will have a smart _______ to help me with the housework.
A. robot
B. wireless TV
C. computer
D. cooker
IV. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Find and correct it.
23. My sister always brings her reuse bag to go shopping.
A. always
B. brings
C. reuse
D. to
24. People in the future might meeting aliens on a different planet.
A. in
B. might meeting
C. on
D. different
25. We live in different cities. My city is more expensive than hers city.
A. different
B. more
C. expensive
D. hers city
V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer by circling A, B, or C.
Venice is a small city in Northeastern Italy, and about 75,000 people live there. Many people who work in Venice live in Mestre, a modern industrial city. Most people in Venice live in beautiful apartment buildings. Tourism is very important, and many people work in hotels and restaurants. There are also many art galleries and old palaces. People don’t drive cars or use roads. They walk or travel by boat on the canals. Tourists enjoy trips in small boats called gondolas.
Venice is a tourist city. Thousands of tourists visit the old city at Easter and at carnival time in February. Another popular festival is the Vogalonga in May. People row in small boats around the city, but it is not a race. People sit in cafes and talk, or they go to restaurants and enjoy local food. They also go swimming, but not in the canals!
26. What is the passage about?
A. People in Venice
B. The history of Venice
C. Brief introduction to Venice
27. Where is Venice?
A. Near the river Ouse
B. In Northeastern Italy
C. Near the Rocky mountains
28. What is true about people in Venice?
A. They live in pretty castles.
B. Many people who live in Venice work in Mestre.
C. They usually walk or use boats to go around.
29. Which is NOT mentioned as an activity for tourists in Venice?
A. Watching boat races.
B. Trying various local dishes.
C. Sitting in cafes and talking.
30. When is the best time for tourists to travel there?
A. at Easter
B. in February
C. Both A&B
VI. Fill each blank with one suitable word by choosing A, B or C.
People need air to breathe. In order to keep us healthy, we need (31) _____ air. However, nowadays, (32) _____ lot of things in our lives create harmful gasses and make the air dirty, like factories, cars and motobikes. Air (33) ______ is one of the worldwide alarming issues nowadays. It causes not only (34) ______ problems in people but also in plants and animals. It’s our responsibility to keep the air (35) _____.
31.
A. clean
B. dirty
C. polluted
32.
A. the
B. a
C. an
33.
A. polluted
B. pollute
C. pollution
34.
A. healthy
B. unhealthy
C. health
35.
A. polluted
B. unpolluted
C. harmful
VII. Combine two sentences to make a complete sentence using and, but or so.
36. My sister can play volleyball well. She can’t swim.
37. He stayed up late to finish his homework. He was sleepy.
38. Mary loves coffee. She goes to that coffee shop every weekend.
VIII. Rewrite these sentences without changing their meanings.
39. Don’t read books in the dark. Your eyes will be ruined.
=> If __________________________________.
40. The A10 robot is 200 dollars. The A11 is 150 dollars. The A12 is 300 dollars.
=> The A11 ______________ among three robots.
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Explore English: Tại đây |
Đáp án đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2
VI. Tổng hợp đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 được tải nhiều nhất
1. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 1
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 1: Tại đây |
2. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 2
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 2: Tại đây |
3. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 3
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 3: Tại đây |
4. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 4
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 4: Tại đây |
5. Đề thi tiếng anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 5
| Tải Đề thi Tiếng nh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2 – Đề số 5 : Tại đây |
Nguồn: Loigiaihay.com
Qua bài viết này, hy vọng các bạn học sinh đã có thêm tài liệu hữu ích để ôn luyện tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối học kì 2. Bộ 10 đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 6 cuối kì 2 kèm đáp án sẽ giúp các em củng cố kiến thức, nâng cao kỹ năng và tự tin hơn khi bước vào kì thi cuối kì. Chúc các bạn học sinh học tập hiệu quả, đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi và tiếp tục phát triển trình độ tiếng Anh của mình. Đừng quên truy cập vào Muaban.net để cập nhật thêm các bộ đề thi ôn tập khác.
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